From reading everything there, I get that the order does not impose any obligations on the complainant (the abused person), only on the respondent (the abuser). So the concept of "misusing the restraining order" doesn't appear to have any basis in law.
no subject
From reading everything there, I get that the order does not impose any obligations on the complainant (the abused person), only on the respondent (the abuser). So the concept of "misusing the restraining order" doesn't appear to have any basis in law.